Look
those who want to eat the najis food shold do so however they should not misguid others by saying it is halal.
And when u ask a scholar abt wat food is halaal ask him if he himself would eat the food.
Salaam alaykum Reflection of Perfection
Thank you for your reply. My apologies for the late reply. I was a little occupied with other duties.
I am afraid you may have misunderstood my earlier posts.
Correct me if I am wrong, Did I ever mention that eating najis food is halaal? I am afraid your comment above indicates that you have interpreted my posts to mean that I have said that eating najis food is halaal. Please understand that that was NOT what I was saying.
Please lets clear this issue before I move on with another attempt at explaining what I am trying to get through.
I thought the point I was making was clear enough. Apparently, as per your reply, it seems that my point was never understood.
What I am saying is that najasat of food is not determined by the SOLE reason that one belongs to a particular religion or sect.
To illustrate this, if I have a Shia Ithna Asheri friend who is doing shirk and his belief is that of shirk and I am aware of it, then eating his food becomes Haraam for me. But if i am not aware of this fact then I am allowed to continue eating his food without doubting his beliefs.
You mention that ALL of your Ismaili friends believe the following: -
i have ismaily friends and all of them belive aga khan as the re incarnation of imam ali and imam ali as the reincarnation of god!
If you are aware of that fact then I agree with you that eating their food is haraam.
However, let me pose a question to you at this point.
If you come across an Ismaili who says the shahada and does not believe in the above belief but instead believes in the oneness (Tawhid) of Allah, would his food also be haraam? (and this is not a hypothetical question, because as to my knowledge Ismailis who have such beliefs exist in Pakistan and other places, maybe even in tanzania...correct me if I am wrong)
Without any doubt, the food of such a person would be halaal as he is not doing shirk and is a MUSLIM. So when we say that eating food of so and so sect is haraam, we are generalizing that everyone who belongs to that sect is doing shirk. Isnt that the reason that no Marj'a have generalized their fatwas in such a manner?
As to your point of misguiding others, I feel that that is very improbable because of two reasons: -
1. Everyone has their own power of intellect and will decide on whats right and wrong based on their own logic, beliefs, judgement and mainly according to their Marjae's fatwas.
2. My view does not mean that everyone has to follow it blindly. Everyone shall be accounted for their own actions and decisions.
I believe that discussions should be constructive and logical. Islam is a logical religion. Its good to understand how things work and what the laws really mean to say. My apologies if my earlier posts were posted in a manner that may have 'misguided' anyone.
somechristians belive that jesus is god and most belive he is the son ofgod
Once again you are generalizing. But again, lets assume that most do believe so, so does all christian food become haraam, even of those who do not believe so?
My earlier question to Muhammad Mahdi still stands asking him to produce the exact question and answer he had with Dr. Alidina.
I will pose another question here, What does the fatwa of Aga Seestani (may Allah give him a long and healthy life) say regarding the food of christians? Why do you think he allows it when 'most believe Jesus is son of God'?
FACT: I have met a whole church of Christians in Dar es Salaam who believe that if one believes by heart that Jesus is son of god then they are commiting Blasphemy (shirk) and they believe that the term Son of God is a general term, as we all are Sons of God.
I hope my point is clearer now.
Please do keep the discussions continuing.
Jazakallah and apologies.